Fellow Law-Lib Folks:
I will try to articulate this question as best I can. My firm is involved in an
antitrust case where members of the plaintiff class (distributors) at the
time of the price-fixing have since been bought by the defendant (the
manufacturer). The question is, since some of the plaintiffs are now
owned by the defendants, can the amount of product they purchased
during the time of the price-fixing be included in the damages?
Now, of course I don't expect any kind of legal opinion on this question -
I'm just trying to find out if there have been any cases that have
addressed this issue. I've driven a West Reference Attorney nearly to
distraction with this query - it's problematical because all the terms I have
to use are so common in antitrust cases. The associate has been
checking antitrust treatises, but without luck. Even a single on-point
case would be considered a major victory in this quest - thanks for any
assistance you might give me.
Karen Westwood
Firm Librarian
Schatz Paquin Lockridge Grindal & Holstein
100 Washington Ave. S. Suite 2200
Minneapolis, MN 55401
612-339-6900
fax 612-339-0981
kewestwood@schatzpaquin.com
This archive was generated by hypermail 2b29 : Wed Nov 14 2007 - 20:49:24 PST